DP-300 Practice Test
Administering Microsoft Azure SQL Solutions
DP-300 tests whether you can actually administer a production Azure SQL environment β Entra ID authentication, migration strategy, performance tuning with DMVs and Query Store, and HA/DR configuration β not just recognize SQL terminology.
Our 500 scenario-based questions cover the full DP-300 blueprint across five domains: planning and implementing data platform resources (choosing between Azure SQL Database, Managed Instance, and SQL Server on VMs, migration strategy, table partitioning, and scale/performance configuration), implementing a secure environment (Microsoft Entra ID authentication, security principals and least privilege, transparent data encryption, Always Encrypted, dynamic data masking, row-level security, and auditing), monitoring, configuring, and optimizing database resources (performance baselines, Query Store, DMVs, execution plans, index and statistics maintenance, and automatic tuning), configuring and managing automation of tasks (SQL Server Agent jobs, ARM/Bicep and PowerShell/CLI deployment automation, and elastic jobs), and planning and configuring HA/DR (RPO/RTO strategy, backup and restore, active geo-replication, Always On availability groups, failover groups, and log shipping). Every question is grounded against live Microsoft Learn and Azure SQL documentation.
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DP-300 Exam Details
What to expect on exam day
Questions
40
Duration
100 minutes
Passing Score
700
Exam Cost
$165
Exam Domains Covered
Master all topics tested on the DP-300 exam
Plan and implement data platform resources
Implement a secure environment
Monitor, configure, and optimize database resources
Configure and manage automation of tasks
Plan and configure a high availability and disaster recovery (HA/DR) environment
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5 Free DP-300 Questions
See how ready you are for the DP-300 exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation so you learn as you go.
Sample DP-300 Practice Questions
10 real questions from the free DP-300bank. Pick an answer in your head, then open βShow answerβ for the explanation.
1. Your team is deciding between partitioning a single table and sharding data across multiple databases for a 500 GB orders table. The workload needs to purge data older than two years every month, and every query and transaction must stay within a single database with no cross-database joins. Which approach should you recommend?
- A. Shard the table across multiple Azure SQL databases using the elastic database client library
- B. Use Azure SQL Database elastic query to combine data from several databases
- C. Use table partitioning within a single database, with a sliding window for the monthly purge
- D. Use active geo-replication to distribute the data across databases
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Because every query and transaction must remain inside one database, table partitioning is the right fit: it's a single-database technique, and a sliding window handles the monthly purge as a fast partition switch. Sharding with the elastic database client library, elastic query, and active geo-replication all involve multiple databases, which would introduce the cross-database complexity the requirement explicitly rules out.
2. A hybrid company runs SQL Server 2019 Standard Edition on-premises with an Always On availability group and a passive secondary replica used only for failover. Both servers are connected to Azure Arc with pay-as-you-go licensing. What should they configure to avoid being billed for the passive replica?
- A. Set the LicenseType property to Paid or PAYG so the Azure Extension for SQL Server automatically exempts the passive HADR replica
- B. Manually stop the SQL Server service on the passive replica whenever it isn't actively needed
- C. Disconnect the passive replica from Azure Arc entirely, removing it from centralized management
- D. Configure the passive replica under a completely separate Azure subscription from the primary
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Setting LicenseType to Paid or PAYG lets the Azure Extension for SQL Server automatically detect the passive high-availability replica and emit a zero-charge usage meter for it, with no manual intervention needed. Manually stopping the service would break failover readiness, disconnecting the replica from Azure Arc would forfeit centralized management and ESU eligibility, and a separate subscription doesn't change how the passive-replica billing exemption works.
3. Which shard map type should you use when a shard needs to map a contiguous range of key values, such as order dates, to a specific database?
- A. ListShardMap
- B. RangeShardMap
- C. Multi-shard query
- D. A reference shard
Show answer
Correct answer: B
A RangeShardMap maps a contiguous range of key values, such as a span of dates, to a given shard. A ListShardMap instead maps discrete, individually listed key values rather than ranges. Multi-shard query is a querying capability, not a shard map type, and a reference shard refers to a table replicated across shards, not a mapping mechanism.
4. A team wants a declarative, idempotent way to define Azure SQL resources that is easier to read and author than raw JSON, and that compiles down to standard Azure Resource Manager templates at deployment time. Which deployment method should they choose?
- A. A Bicep template
- B. An imperative Azure CLI script
- C. Manual creation through the Azure portal
- D. SSMS's deploy-database-to-Azure wizard
Show answer
Correct answer: A
Bicep is a domain-specific language that is more concise and readable than ARM JSON, and it transpiles to ARM JSON at deployment time while remaining declarative and idempotent. An imperative Azure CLI script issues sequential commands rather than describing desired state declaratively. Manual portal creation and the SSMS wizard are GUI-driven, one-off actions that aren't repeatable as code.
5. Which statement best describes SQL Managed Instance enabled by Azure Arc?
- A. It's a PaaS service whose compute runs exclusively inside Microsoft-managed Azure data centers, with no on-premises deployment option
- B. It's a containerized version of SQL Managed Instance that runs on Kubernetes outside Azure, with near-100% engine compatibility
- C. It's an inventory-discovery service that catalogs existing SQL Server installations without running the database workload itself
- D. It's a rebranding of SQL Server on Azure Virtual Machines aimed at simplifying licensing and support terminology
Show answer
Correct answer: B
SQL Managed Instance enabled by Azure Arc is deployed as a containerized application on Kubernetes, which can run on-premises or in other clouds, and it shares its code base with the latest stable SQL Server engine for near-100% compatibility. It doesn't run exclusively inside Azure data centers, it actively runs the workload rather than just discovering it, and it's a distinct product from SQL Server on Azure Virtual Machines.
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6. Which Azure CLI command is used to create a new Azure SQL Database logical server?
- A. az sql db create
- B. az sql server create
- C. az sql mi create
- D. az vm create
Show answer
Correct answer: B
az sql server create provisions the logical server that hosts one or more Azure SQL databases. az sql db create instead creates a database on an existing logical server, az sql mi create provisions an Azure SQL Managed Instance rather than a logical server, and az vm create provisions a virtual machine, unrelated to Azure SQL Database.
7. A gaming company's Azure SQL Database is approaching the 4 TB maximum storage limit of its current service tier. They also need near-instantaneous backups regardless of database size and the ability to add several read-only replicas for reporting. Which service tier should you recommend?
- A. Business Critical tier of Azure SQL Managed Instance
- B. General Purpose tier of Azure SQL Database
- C. Premium (DTU-based) tier of Azure SQL Database
- D. Hyperscale service tier of Azure SQL Database
Show answer
Correct answer: D
Hyperscale decouples compute from storage, supporting up to 128 TB with near-instantaneous backups and up to 30 named read-scale replicas. General Purpose and the DTU-based Premium tier are both capped at 4 TB and don't offer this backup or replica model. Hyperscale is available only for Azure SQL Database, not Managed Instance, so a Business Critical managed instance wouldn't address the same storage ceiling.
8. What is a defining characteristic of a SQL database in Microsoft Fabric compared to an Azure SQL Database?
- A. It requires provisioning a completely separate Azure subscription before it can be created
- B. It is restricted to read replica functionality and does not process new write transactions
- C. It's created and managed inside the Microsoft Fabric portal as part of a Fabric workspace and capacity
- D. It doesn't use Transact-SQL and instead relies entirely on a proprietary Fabric query language
Show answer
Correct answer: C
A SQL database in Microsoft Fabric is provisioned and managed directly from the Fabric portal within a Fabric workspace and capacity, unlike Azure SQL Database, which is provisioned through the Azure portal or Azure resource tooling. It doesn't require a separate Azure subscription, it supports full read-write OLTP workloads, and it's queried with standard Transact-SQL.
9. You are deploying new SQL Server on Azure VM workloads today and need a long-term patch management strategy across dozens of VMs, including automatic installation of Cumulative Updates, that will remain actively supported for years to come. Which approach should you configure?
- A. The Automated Patching feature via the SQL Server IaaS Agent Extension
- B. Azure Update Manager
- C. Manual Windows Update checks performed on each VM individually
- D. A custom Task Scheduler script that runs Windows Update weekly
Show answer
Correct answer: B
Azure Update Manager is the current, actively developed solution that installs Cumulative Updates alongside other updates at scale, with centralized scheduling and compliance reporting, making it the right choice for new deployments. Automated Patching is scheduled for retirement in September 2027 and doesn't install Cumulative Updates at all. Manual per-VM checks and a custom weekly script don't scale across dozens of VMs and lack centralized compliance visibility.
10. A company runs SQL Managed Instance on an on-premises Kubernetes cluster. They need Azure RBAC-based management, Microsoft Defender for Cloud integration, and Microsoft Entra ID authentication for the instance itself, but network policy forbids opening any inbound port at the datacenter firewall. Which configuration should you recommend?
- A. Azure Arc-enabled SQL Managed Instance in Indirectly Connected mode
- B. A standalone SQL Managed Instance on Kubernetes without Azure Arc
- C. Azure Arc-enabled SQL Managed Instance in Directly Connected mode
- D. SQL Server enabled by Azure Arc installed on the Kubernetes host operating system
Show answer
Correct answer: C
Directly Connected mode manages the instance through Azure Resource Manager and supports Microsoft Entra ID, Azure RBAC, and Defender for Cloud integration, while requiring only outbound HTTPS (port 443) traffic and no inbound ports. Indirectly Connected mode only sends read-only inventory data to Azure and doesn't support Entra ID, RBAC, or Defender integration. A standalone instance without Azure Arc has no Azure Resource Manager presence at all, and SQL Server enabled by Azure Arc targets standalone SQL Server instances, not the containerized Managed Instance offering.
DP-300 study resources
Why Practice with MSCertQuiz?
Microsoft Learn teaches concepts. We prepare you for the actual exam.
Deep coverage of Microsoft Entra ID authentication and security configuration most SQL-only question banks skip: Entra-only auth effects, Always Encrypted with VBS enclaves, dynamic data masking, and row-level security
Real performance-tuning scenarios using Query Store, DMVs, execution plans, and Intelligent Insights β matching the diagnostic workflow the exam actually tests, not just DBA vocabulary
Full HA/DR content most competitors underweight: active geo-replication, Always On availability groups on Managed Instance vs. Azure VMs, failover groups, and log shipping, each mapped to RPO/RTO tradeoffs
Every question verified against live Microsoft Learn and Azure SQL documentation before it ships, so content stays accurate as Azure SQL features keep evolving
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βI've administered on-prem SQL Server for years but had never carefully compared Managed Instance vs. Azure VM for Always On availability groups. The HA/DR questions closed real gaps. Passed on my first attempt.β
Raj D.
DP-300 Certified
βThe Entra ID authentication and Always Encrypted with VBS enclaves questions were way more detailed than I expected from a practice test, and matched the real exam almost exactly.β
Clara M.
Database Administrator
βAs someone who mostly does performance tuning, the migration-strategy and automation questions filled real gaps between what I knew and what the exam actually tests.β
Oluwaseun A.
Passed DP-300 first try
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